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1 Corinthians Copyright 1999. John Creamer. All rights reserved. Questions: How do you think sexual mores have changed in the past 30-40 years? How?
Can you think of any examples of the changes? What effect do you think the sexual revolution has had on the sanctity
of marriage? Does anyone know the latest statistic of the % of marriages that end
in divorce? Why do you think the percentage is so high? By contrast, does anyone know the percentage of people who default on
a car loan? (Very low.) What does it say about us as a nation to be much
more committed to our car loan than our marriage? If you had to render an opinion, do you think the changes in attitudes
toward sex in the past 30-40 years has been helpful, or hurtful to us? Scripture: (1 Corinthians 6:12-20 NIV) "Everything is permissible for me"--but
not everything is beneficial. "Everything is permissible for me"--but
I will not be mastered by anything. {13} "Food for the stomach and
the stomach for food"--but God will destroy them both. The body is
not meant for sexual immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the
body. {14} By his power God raised the Lord from the dead, and he will
raise us also. Apparently, the Corinthians had a couple of often quoted sayings, recorded
in verses 12 and 13. In several translations, the sayings are encapsulated
by quotation marks. What is the quote in verse 12? …verse 13? What limits did Paul add to the quote in verse 12? (‘Everything’
is not beneficial for us or worthwhile enough to be our master.) What comment did Paul make about the ‘stomach quote’ in verse
13? (What we eat is only temporal…setting the stage for his next
statement in the last part of verse 13.) Although we don’t know the origin or background of the two quotes,
we do know that there had been a great change in the ‘religious mores’
of that day. Just a few years earlier in the Jewish faith, the way to
righteousness was by keeping the Law…which was comprised of hundreds
of do’s and don’ts, particularly the dietary laws. At the time
of the writing of this letter to the Greeks, salvation came by grace,
through faith in Jesus Christ…apart from keeping the law. Like the
‘peril of the pendulum’, the early believers could have had
a broad swing in the opposite direction from keeping the Law to their
freedoms in Christ…thus the phrase “Everything is permissible
for me” and “Food for the stomach and the stomach for food.” Almost as if Paul anticipated their freedoms in Christ to extend to
include freedom to have sinful sexual relationships, Paul seemed to say,
“Now hold it right there!” What statement did he make in the last part of verse 13? (God didn’t
make us for sex; He made us for himself.) {15} Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ himself?
Shall I then take the members of Christ and unite them with a prostitute?
Never! {16} Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute
is one with her in body? For it is said, "The two will become one
flesh." {17} But he who unites himself with the Lord is one with
him in spirit. He reminds his readers in verse 15 that they are members of Christ’s
body…the church. Having said that, what does he ask in 15b? What does he also remind them in verse 16? See Matt 19:4-6 and Ephesians
5:29-32: (Matthew 19:4-6 NIV) "Haven't you
read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made
them male and female,' {5} and said, 'For this reason a man will leave
his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become
one flesh'? {6} So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God
has joined together, let man not separate." According to these verses and verse 16 above, how do the ‘two become
one flesh’? (Through marriage, of course, but in the case of the
prostitute above, through sexual union.) This is obviously how two people become one flesh through the marriage
covenant. (Ephesians 5:29-32 NIV) After all, no one ever hated his own body,
but he feeds and cares for it, just as Christ does the church-- {30} for
we are members of his body. {31} "For this reason a man will leave
his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become
one flesh." {32} This is a profound mystery--but I am talking about
Christ and the church. Once again, we see the same quote, but this time not in the context of marriage. What is the context of ‘will become one flesh’ in these verses? (The body of Christ…the church. Therefore…when a member of the body of Christ commits adultery,
he/she is involving other people who are parts of the body also, because
we are all part of the same body.) According to verse 1 Corinthians 6:17, who are we to be united with instead
of a sexual partner outside of marriage? (The Lord.) This is how many people become one body—the body of Christ—through
entering the covenant with Him. Therefore, when one of the members of
the body enters a sinful sexual relationship outside of marriage, he/she
makes everyone in the body of Christ…including Jesus Christ himself…an
accomplice to adultery. The sin is not committed in a vaccuum. How does Paul differentiate sexual sins from other sins? What do you think Paul meant when he said ‘he who sins sexually
sins against his own body’? (Paul could have been talking about a
number of effects sexual sins have on the body—sexually transmitted
diseases, etc., that have direct impact on the body. But, he also could
have been referring to the mental anguish, guilt and anxiety that takes
place inside the person…in the mind and in the heart…much more
devastating than the physical.) (1 Corinthians 7 NIV) Now for the matters you wrote about: It is good
for a man not to marry. {2} But since there is so much immorality, each
man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband. (Notice the particular wording in place of ‘…good for a
man not to marry…’ in the New American Standard translation:
) (1 Corinthians 7:1-2 NASB) Now concerning the things about which you
wrote, it is good for a man not to touch a woman. {2} But because of immoralities,
let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. The NASB and other translations say ‘…it is good for a man
not to touch a woman…’, followed by the reason in verse 2, ‘
…but since there is so much immorality, each man should have his
own wife, and each woman her own husband.’ How is this very practical advice? How might a man ‘touching’ a woman lead to sexual immorality? On the other hand, if a man is married, what incentive does he have to
avoid ‘touching’ another woman? What incentives can his wife give him to keep his hands off other women? If a woman is married, how does that impact other men ‘keeping their
hands off her’? From the standpoint of the husband and wife, how does the security of
their marriage act as an incentive to not approach others sexually? (Ideally,
their sexual needs are met at home.) Are these verses in Paul’s letter to the Greek believers in Corinth
still practical for our ‘sexually enlightened’ society today?
The February 22, 1999 issue of U.S. News and World Report featured
an article “Not tonight, dear” that unveiled the findings
of “…a major new analysis of Americans’ sexual lives…”.
The article stated: Although the report was primarily intended to gather data about personal
sexual fulfillment, one part of the survey was designed to “…reveal
important variations in sexuality by age, race, gender, education, and
life circumstances.” Apparently, one of the ‘life circumstances
category’ asked the person if he/she was married or single. The analyzers
of the survey seemed surprised to report the following ‘variation’: “For instance, married people—both men and women—report
less sexual dysfunction than do single people, including the never married,
divorced, and widowed. Laumann (the Univ. of Chicago sociologist who analyzed
the study) and others interpret this to mean that the singles scene may
not be as carefree and fulfilling as it’s cracked up to be—even
in the wake of the sexual revolution—and that sex within the security
of marriage is less problematic.” Paul was not giving this advice to the believers in Corinth so they could
be more fulfilled sexually. He gave it because it was the right thing
for them to do in God’s eyes. Interestingly enough, however, statistics in a secular survey that has
nothing to do with God confirm that Scriptural plans for us sexually are
superior to the best of any of mankind’s perversions. Paul also does not assume that if men and women simply get married, everything
will be O.K. with them regarding sex. It will take some effort. He continues:
{3} The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise
the wife to her husband. {4} The wife's body does not belong to her alone
but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not
belong to him alone but also to his wife. {5} Do not deprive each other
except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves
to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because
of your lack of self-control. (In case someone is not clear about the meaning of
these verses, What is the ‘marital duty’ that both the husband and wife have
obligated themselves to keep? According to verse 4, who has the ‘rights’ to the wife’s
body? …the husband’s body? Why might some not want to relinquish these ‘rights’ to their
mate? Do you see any exceptions in these verses? What are husbands and wives warned not to do in verse 5? Is it possible that wives or husbands would ever ‘deprive each other’
from having sexual relations? If so, what might be some of the reasons? If so, what might be some of the damage caused in their day-to-day relationship? If so, what might be some of the damage to either individual? If so, and if deprivation continued for extended periods of time, what
effect could this have on the intimacy of the marriage? …on the strength
of the marriage? What did Paul say was the only legitimate reason for a temporary cessation
of the sexual relations? (By mutual consent…to pray.) Note: This does not call for a smart-aleck remark from a shunned husband
or wife about the other’s prayer life! (1 Corinthians 7:3-5 NLT) The husband should not deprive his wife
of sexual intimacy, which is her right as a married woman, nor should
the wife deprive her husband. {4} The wife gives authority over her body
to her husband, and the husband also gives authority over his body to
his wife. {5} So do not deprive each other of sexual relations. The only
exception to this rule would be the agreement of both husband and wife
to refrain from sexual intimacy for a limited time, so they can give themselves
more completely to prayer. Afterward they should come together again so
that Satan won't be able to tempt them because of their lack of self-control. {6} I say this as a concession, not as a command. {7} I wish that
all men were as I am. But each man has his own gift from God; one has
this gift, another has that. {8} Now to the unmarried and the widows I
say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I am. {9} But if they cannot
control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than
to burn with passion. Paul prefaces the next three verses as being a ‘concession…not
a command’. He gives his reasons for advising singles to remain single
later in the letter. What does he give in verse 9 as the exception to
remaining single? Why is this good advice for a person interested in pleasing God? (It
prevents them from the temptation to violate the commandment about adultery.) Personal note about verse 9…(and all these verses). Never underestimate
the power of God in these verses about sex, the home and marriage. As
a brand new believer in 1974, I had been dating a very special young woman
for a couple of months…long enough to begin to struggle with the
‘burn with passion’ issues. One day as I was reading the Bible,
I came across this verse. “That’s it! This is what I need to
do!” I immediately proposed to her and within days we were married.
We will celebrate our 25th anniversary next month. God’s Word is
powerful...and wonderful…and still directs us in the way God wants
us to go. Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path. (Psalms
119:105 KJV) {10} To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife
must not separate from her husband. {11} But if she does, she must remain
unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not
divorce his wife. These two verses address husbands and wives who are both believers. What
does he tell the wives? If she does separate from him, what must she do? What must the husband not do? How committed are believers today to following the instruction in these
verses and reinforcing other believers to do so as well? What is often easier than following these verses? (Follow the high percentage
of people who ‘hang it up’ because they no longer feel anything
for their mate.) {12} To the rest I say this (I, not the Lord): If any brother has
a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to live with him, he must
not divorce her. {13} And if a woman has a husband who is not a believer
and he is willing to live with her, she must not divorce him. {14} For
the unbelieving husband has been sanctified through his wife, and the
unbelieving wife has been sanctified through her believing husband. Otherwise
your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy. (1 Corinthians 7:14 NLT) For the Christian wife brings holiness to
her marriage, and the Christian husband brings holiness to his marriage.
Otherwise, your children would not have a godly influence, but now they
are set apart for him. These verses are for the person who has a husband or wife that is not
a believer. What do they say to the believing partner? What does verse 14 (particularly in the NLT) give as the reason for staying
together? {15} But if the unbeliever leaves, let him do so. A believing man
or woman is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live
in peace. What does this verse say to the Christian whose unbelieving partner wants
to leave him/her? {16} How do you know, wife, whether you will save your husband? Or,
how do you know, husband, whether you will save your wife? Some may link this verse, stated as it is in this translation, directly
to verse 15 as a condescending question like, “You didn’t think
you’d be able to save them, did you?” However, consider the
verse as translated in the NRSV: (1 Corinthians 7:16 NRSV) Wife, for all you know, you might save your
husband. Husband, for all you know, you might save your wife. Given this translation, verse 16 has a broader application to verses
12-15 inclusively, as a commentary on the effort to which believers should
go to keep their marriage intact…even with a non-believer…in
hope that the entire family, including the unbelieving partner will be
saved. Bottom Line: Yes, times have changed…particularly regarding sex, marriage and divorce. But! We must never think that God will lower His standards because we failed to live up to them. Something needs to change—and it isn’t God. |